A probability distribution P on {0,1,2,...,n'} is statistically indistinguishable from Binomial(p,n') iff for all 0 \leq k \leq n', P(k) = {n' \choose k} p^k (1-p)^{n'-k}. A better way to say this is "X' should be governed by the Binomial(p,n') distribution". Jim On 6/24/12, Dan Asimov <dasimov@earthlink.net> wrote:

Jim, what is your definition of "statistically indistinguishable" ?

--Dan

________________________________________________________________________________________ It goes without saying that .

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