RE: [math-fun] Modular notation
7 Jun
2007
7 Jun
'07
6:03 p.m.
At 03:43 PM 6/7/2007, Schroeppel, Richard wrote:
I don't know the history: I don't think the extended notations are used in Hardy & Wright, except maybe for (mod 1) to mean fractional part, or for stuff with algebraic integers.
Actually Hardy & Wright do use this notation, and in exactly the same context as the Monthly article that Dan cited. Theorem 116 says "If p>3, and 1/i is the associate of i (mod p^2), then 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... + 1/(p-1) == 0 (mod p^2)." (By "associate" they mean "multiplicative inverse".) -- Fred W. Helenius fredh@ix.netcom.com
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Fred W. Helenius