[math-fun] function question
Is 1. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n >= 0 for all n > 1? 2. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n = 5 for any n?
In this context, sigma() means the sum-of-divisors function. The formula for phi(N) is N * product (1 - 1/P) product taken over primes P that divide N. The formula for sigma(N) is N * product (1 + 1/P + 1/P^2 + ... 1/P^E) with P dividing N and P^E being the highest power of P that divides N. If N = P*Q, with P & Q distinct primes, phi(N) = (P-1)(Q-1) = N - P - Q + 1, and sigma(N) = (P+1)(Q+1) = N + P + Q + 1. If N = P^2 * Q, with P & Q distinct primes, phi(N) = (P^2 - P) (Q-1), while sigma(N) = (P^2 + P + 1) (Q+1). When N>2, phi(N) is even. sigma(N) is even except when N is a square or twice a square. If A and B have no common factor, both phi and sigma are multiplicative: phi(AB) = phi(A)phi(B) and ditto for sigma. One consequence is that both phi(N) and sigma(N) can be computed by applying them to the prime-power factorization of N. Rich ------- Quoting Dan Asimov <asimov@msri.org>:
What is sigma(n) ?
?Dan
On Nov 20, 2015, at 5:05 PM, David Wilson <davidwwilson@comcast.net> wrote:
Is
1. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n >= 0 for all n > 1?
2. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n = 5 for any n?
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The data at OEIS's A051709 suggests that the answer to 1. is Yes and to 2. is No. And sigma(n) is the sum of the positive divisors of n. On Fri, Nov 20, 2015 at 8:05 PM, David Wilson <davidwwilson@comcast.net> wrote:
Is
1. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n >= 0 for all n > 1?
2. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n = 5 for any n?
_______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com https://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
On 11/20/2015 8:05 PM, David Wilson wrote:
Is
1. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n >= 0 for all n > 1?
2. Is phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n = 5 for any n?
That the answer to (1) is yes is part of an exercise (4.2.21) in Niven, Zuckerman & Montgomery's "An Introduction to the Theory of Numbers", 5th ed. The following solution is not the simplest, but it will also allow an answer to (2). Let f(n) = phi(n) + sigma(n) - 2n. In particular, f(1) = 0; we'll consider what happens to f when new prime factors are included in n. Let p be any prime and consider f(pn) in two cases. If p does not divide n, then phi(pn) = (p - 1)phi(n) and sigma(pn) = (p + 1)sigma(n) (by the formulas in Rich's message), so f(pn) = phi(pn) + sigma(pn) - 2pn = (p - 1)phi(n) + (p + 1)sigma(n) - 2pn = p f(n) + sigma(n) - phi(n) >= p f(n), since sigma(n) >= n >= phi(n), with equality only if n = 1. If p divides n, f(pn) = phi(pn) + sigma(pn) - 2pn >= p phi(n) + (p sigma(n) + 1) - 2pn = p f(n) + 1, because phi(pn) = p phi(n) by the explicit formula and because sigma(pn) includes pd for every divisor d of n, as well as 1. This establishes (1) and a bit more: f(n) = 0 for n a prime or 1, and f(n) > 0 for all other n. It also shows f(pn) >= f(n) with equality only when n = 1; using this it is possible to show that the answer to (2) is no. Since phi(n) is even for n > 2, f(n) is odd only if sigma(n) is odd and n > 2; namely when n = k^2 or 2k^2, k > 1. The result then follows by examining f(n) for the following cases: a) For n = p^2 (for odd prime p) or n = 2^k for k <= 3. Here f(n) < 5. [In fact, f(p^2) = 1 and f(2^k) = 2^(k - 1) - 1 for k >= 1.] b) For n = 2p^2 or p^4 (for odd prime p), n = p^2 q^2 (for distinct odd primes p,q), or n = 2^4. Here f(n) > 5. [One computes f(2p^2) = 2p + 3, f(p^4) = p^2 + p + 1, and f(p^2 q^2) = (p + q)^2 + p + q + 1.] Every square or double square is either covered by a) or is a multiple of a number covered by b), so that shows f(n) is never 5. -- Fred W. Helenius fredh@ix.netcom.com
Thanks to everyone who replied. And thanks for the incisive solution, FH. Lying in bed thinking about this problem, I realized that while phi(n) + sigma(n) >= 2n, I believe it is also true that phi(n)sigma(n) < 2n^2
participants (5)
-
Allan Wechsler -
Dan Asimov -
David Wilson -
Fred W. Helenius -
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