[math-fun] Prime question
Let f(K) = 2K+1. Set f_1(K) := f(K), f_(n+1)(K) := f(f_n(K)). ---------------------------------------------------- QUESTION: What is the sup of all n such that there exists a prime number p for which f_r(p) is prime for all r in the range 1 <= r <= n ? In particular, could this sup be infinite? ----------------------------------------------------- (It's easy to see that f_r(K) == (2^r)(K+1)-1.) Of course the same question could well be asked of any other function taking positive odds into themselves, e.g., linear functions of form K |-> A*K+B such that A+B is odd, as well as tons of polynomials. Is much known about these? --Dan
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/CunninghamChain.html and http://hjem.get2net.dk/jka/math/Cunningham_Chain_records.htm might be a good enough starting point for learning about these things. Enjoy, --Joshua Zucker
participants (2)
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Dan Asimov -
Joshua Zucker