Re: [math-fun] English sequence
14 Jan
2009
14 Jan
'09
2:41 p.m.
From: "Allan Wechsler" <acwacw@gmail.com>
More "constructively", let a(0)=3, and then define a(n+1) as the smallest number whose name written out in English has a(n) letters.
If so, shouldn't a(1) = 1? 6 seems to be the smallest a(0) that works with that definition (and I like that definition). The prefixes on English 'illions seem to be Latin names for numbers. If so, can we back-fit Latin transliterations of the English words to extend things indefinitely? --Steve
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Steve Witham