[math-fun] Simple model of Earth magnetic field, which sounded promising for a little while
The Cambridge Encyclopedia of Earth Science claims what generates the Earth's magnetic field is not understood. Here I suggest a simple model. FACTS: 1. The field is roughly a dipole pointed approximately North, and at previous times in Earth history has pointed approximately South instead. North and South (with respect to rotation axis) appear to be stable states, but pointing in other directions (or nonexistent field) appears to be an unstable state which quickly vanishes and is replaced by one of the two stable states. This historical record is revealed by magnetism trapped in volcanic rocks at time of formation, versus that time. You can see a graphic in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geomagnetic_reversal which shows 9 N-pointing and 9 S-pointing periods occurred during the last 5 Million years, each with apparently-random durations. There may also have been additional switchovers with short durations. The short ones are hard to detect. The best known such short-duration event was the "Laschamp event" in about the year 39000 BC, a reversal lasting only about 440 years with the actual change of polarity lasting around 250 years. The reversed field was 75% weaker and the strength dropped to only 5% of the current strength during the transition. This resulted in greater radiation reaching the Earth, causing greater production of beryllium 10 and higher levels of carbon 14. Perhaps these short events are best regarded as failed attempts to reverse -- we drop to a low field state, and then that state is attracted to the two N- or S-pointing stable states. If attracted back to the original one then we get a "failed reversal" instead of a genuine reversal. The switchover-times are each <=50,000 years. There was at least one 40 million year span containing no reversal, but overall average has been about 2.2 reversals per million years. 2. The Moon has only tiny magnetic field, mostly a few nanoTesla. (Versus: Earth's is 25-65 microTesla.) Comparably-tiny fields: Mars, Venus. Intermediate strength: Mercury. Jupiter's field is 10X Earth's. Saturn also has a strong field. Uranus and Neptune have large magnetic fields, but they are not well axis aligned. MY MODEL: The field is generated by a "dynamo" from convection currents of hot electrically conductive fluid inside the planet. Moon and Mars have no field since they have no such internal convection currents, they are geo-tectonically dead in the sense they have no volcanos (although Mars at an earlier time did have volcanos) and no plate tectonics, indicating internal convection currents are much weaker and less-well defined (i.e. tend to cancel out over time averaging). Venus still has active volcanos, but its lack of magnetic field will be explained below. Mercury's, Saturn's, and Jupiter's fields are presumed to be generated by same mechanism as Earth's. The more gravity and more internal heat a (non-dead) planet has, the more powerful its convection and hence more powerful its fields -- also axis alignment more-perpendicular to planet-sun direction helps generate more field for reason explained below -- all explaining why Mercury<Earth<Saturn<Jupiter. Now my claim is that the convection currents flow outward from core toward equator. The fluid then cools, and drops back to the core from the poles. This requires that (and is predicted by) the poles tend to exert more cooling effect than the equator. If so, then a N- or S-pointing magnetic field, will induce (via Lorentz force) an equator-circling electrical current, This in turn will reinforce the field. Result is a stable "dynamo" powered ultimately by internal heat (radioactively generated and/or left over from planet formation). For Earth, situation is complicated by the presence of oceans over thin crust, and continents over thick crust. Presumably there is more cooling in the ocean regions and/or volcanic regions. Also there are "hot spots" such as Hawaii. Also the Earth's rotation axis precesses and is not exactly perpendicular to the Earth-sun line. All this complexity, plus fluid "turbulence," presumably has something to do with why we get occasional reversals. I would presume the field continually fluctuates and whenever (rarely) a fluctuation is comparable to the field itself, then we are ready for either a reversal or failed-reversal. In the case of Venus, there are no plate tectonics (although there is volcanism) and there is a huge atmosphere which redistributes heat efficiently, meaning the equator may not have a much greater cooling effect than the poles. For Uranus and Neptune the sun is so far away that its thermal effects are pretty negligible, explaining why their fields are not axis aligned (and Uranus has a huge axial tilt too, so even if the sun's heat non-negligible, that'd still mostly cancel out its effects). SO??? That seemed pretty easy. Why wasn't this thought of ages ago? Too shed light on that, let's do some crude numerical calculations. Assume convection speed of v = 1 cm/year -- same order as continent drift speeds. Total voltage induced circling equator (25000 mile circumf.) then is of order v * (50 microTesla) * (25000 miles) = 6.4 * 10^(-7) volts. Assuming 40 ohm*meter electrical resistivity for lava (this was a Hawaii measurement) the earth going round the equator is about a 10^(-5) ohm resistor. [However it actually is found that high pressures and high temperatures both act to decrease resistivity for molten rock apparently like Arhennius law exp(const/T), plus there are stairsteps caused by temperature surpassing ionization-energy thresholds.] So this voltage would induce a current circling equator of order 0.06 Amps. That in turn would cause a magnetic dipole moment of about 8*10^12 * meter^2 * ampere which is 10^10 times smaller than the actual Earth dipole moment 8*10^22 * meter^2 * Ampere. Oops. It seems still within the reasonable realm that the resistivity might be only 1 ohm*meter and the flow speed might be 10 cm/year. This would increase our predicted dipole moment by a factor of 40*10=400. The flow speeds necessarily will be larger still nearer the center of the Earth due to volumes being smaller there, and the magnetic fields there might be much larger due to larger currents at smaller distances. So assuming both 10X greater flow speed and magnetic field down there, we could get another factor of a few hundred. But this is still well short of the required 10^10 factor. CONCLUSION: The model sounded great for a little while, but it is predicting too small fields compared to observation. What went wrong?? -- Warren D. Smith http://RangeVoting.org <-- add your endorsement (by clicking "endorse" as 1st step)
FeO is an insulator which is common inside rocks. It becomes metallic (electrically conductive) at high pressure (70 GPa) and temperature (1900 K). [Kenji Ohta, R. E. Cohen, Kei Hirose, Kristjan Haule, Katsuya Shimizu, Yasuo Ohishi: Experimental and Theoretical Evidence for Pressure-Induced Metallization in FeO with Rocksalt-Type Structure, Phys. Rev. Lett. 108 (2012) 026403.] Watch out -- such findings might radically change the picture of how Earth magnetic field is generated... It turns out people have been trying to do numerical simulation of the "geodynamo" e.g. see http://emerald.ucsc.edu/~glatz/pub/olson_etal_jgr_1999.pdf http://www.ipgp.fr/~dormy/Publications/DVC00.pdf
OK, now this baloney is starting to get somewhere. First: which direction convection should happen in Nature?: (A) up to equator, sinks at poles (B) up to poles, sinks at equator? Answer: I claim B should be Nature's choice. The reason is the nonlinear term for interaction between viscosity and gravity. Specifically, gravity is slightly stronger in the polar direction (no centrifugal counterforce). And it also is effectively stronger when acting on hot stuff, because hotter stuff has lower viscosity. So to enjoy the most effective drive for convection, you want to make the hot stuff rise in the polar direction (enjoying the interaction of strong with strong, giving everything a boost) then the cold stuff sinks from the equator. So this effect should bias things to make sure the convection happens predominantly in style (B). This is good since it agrees with my previous post that (B) is the direction that creates a self-reinforcing dynamo, while (A) would experience negative feedback non-dynamo. Great. (Also note, Venus is almost nonrotating which fits with the observation it has almost no magnetic field.) Second. My model sounded great qualitatively, but was yielding way too small magnetic field strength predictions. But now the solution to that puzzle occurs to me. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Structure_of_the_Earth Inside the earth is a region called the "outer core" (1220 km < r < 3400 km) believed to consist mainly of liquid metal, mainly iron & nickel. All other regions are mainly solid or semisolid/ductile. (Semisolid still has convection via diffusive atomic rearrangements.) So, this has got to be where the magnetic action is. Since liquid, we should get much faster flow speeds (far lower viscosity, by factor of up to 10^25, versus the Mantle), And since metal, much higher electrical conductivity (by factor of 10^7), and since smaller than the earth (outer core has outer radius half that of the whole planet) everything is more concentrated (smaller distances imply greater fields from same-amp currents). In view of all this, there now is probably no problem at all explaining (at least at the low precision level of my crude estimates) how the Earth can have as large a magnetic field as it does. And in case you are worried I'm now predicting way too LARGE a field, no problem, we can weaken it by postulating there's a lot of funny turbulent motion, which cancels out 99% leaving only 1% uncanceled (or pretty much whatever weakening-factor we want can be postulated in this way). So... I now think, yes, this is the explanation for the Earth's magnetic field. How much of this thinking is original? No idea, but probably not a whole lot.
Warren, you've left out the Coriolis force. It surely plays an important role. -- Gene
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,… be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2. Let the random variable X be defined as X := Sum_{n=1…oo} e_j/2^j. PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ??? —Dan
On 2014-02-13 14:18, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,… be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1…oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
—Dan _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
. . . . . . . . If I have a uniformly distributed number between 0 and 1, expressed in binary, I would assume that the probability is .5 that any particular bit was a 1. Now, if I subtract .5 from each bit, the value of the number decreases by .5, so now uniform between -.5 and +.5 (and each bit is randomly +-.5) Finally, I multiply by 2, so uniform between -1 and 1 (and each bit is randomly +-1). Seems like a round about way of getting there, but requiring about as much thought as I'm capable of while coding.
It's -inf with probability 1/2 and +inf with probability 1/2. Brent On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,… be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1…oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
—Dan _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
Surely it's bounded by -1 and 1? Charles Greathouse Analyst/Programmer Case Western Reserve University On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 4:42 PM, meekerdb <meekerdb@verizon.net> wrote:
It's -inf with probability 1/2 and +inf with probability 1/2.
Brent
On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,... be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1...oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
--Dan _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
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Your problem is known as the Bernoulli Convolution. Look here for a nice survey. Victor http://www.math.washington.edu/~solomyak/PREPRINTS/mandel2.pdf On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 4:50 PM, Charles Greathouse < charles.greathouse@case.edu> wrote:
Surely it's bounded by -1 and 1?
Charles Greathouse Analyst/Programmer Case Western Reserve University
On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 4:42 PM, meekerdb <meekerdb@verizon.net> wrote:
It's -inf with probability 1/2 and +inf with probability 1/2.
Brent
On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,... be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1...oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
--Dan _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
_______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
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What an interesting paper! And the book it appeared in is full of other intriguing fractal stuff: Michel Laurent Lapidus, Machiel Van Frankenhuysen (eds.) Fractal Geometry and Applications: a Jubilee of Benoit Mandelbrot American Mathematical Soc. (2004) http://books.google.ie/books?id=sgSAFLlae7gC [ There's evidently a lot of multitasking going on around this topic. I'm told it makes you go blind; or deaf. Or maybe just plain bonkers. Everyone knows that only the women are any good at it ... Give it up, chaps --- now! ] WFL On 2/13/14, Victor Miller <victorsmiller@gmail.com> wrote:
Your problem is known as the Bernoulli Convolution. Look here for a nice survey.
Victor
http://www.math.washington.edu/~solomyak/PREPRINTS/mandel2.pdf
On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 4:50 PM, Charles Greathouse < charles.greathouse@case.edu> wrote:
Surely it's bounded by -1 and 1?
Charles Greathouse Analyst/Programmer Case Western Reserve University
On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 4:42 PM, meekerdb <meekerdb@verizon.net> wrote:
It's -inf with probability 1/2 and +inf with probability 1/2.
Brent
On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,... be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1...oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
--Dan _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
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As Fred says, fascinating! Thanks, Victor. I had no idea that slightly changing the question leads to such subtleties. Though it shouldn’t be surprising that the question has been asked before. (Long before Erdős discussed it? Or not?) I got the same answer Mike Speciner did: uniform on [-1,1], though maybe a bit more rigorously, using a Fourier transform to get essentially the product for n >= 1 of cos(w/2^n). Which I couldn’t evaluate explicitly but found that Viéte (Vieta) evaluated in 1593 as sinc(w) := sin(w)/w. Then looking up the inverse Fourier transform to get U[-1,1]. It seems that in some sense the density ought to have a spike at any x = 1/2^n in (-1,1), since there are countably many sign patterns with that sum. For all other x in [-1,1], there is a unique sign pattern {e_j} that gives x = Sum e_j/2^j. Don’t know if there is any rigorous way to make sense of this. —Dan On Feb 13, 2014, at 2:03 PM, Victor Miller <victorsmiller@gmail.com> wrote:
Your problem is known as the Bernoulli Convolution. Look here for a nice survey.
On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,... be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1...oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
--Dan
On Fri, Feb 14, 2014 at 12:08 AM, Dan Asimov <dasimov@earthlink.net> wrote:
It seems that in some sense the density ought to have a spike at any x = 1/2^n in (-1,1), since there are countably many sign patterns with that sum. For all other x in [-1,1], there is a unique sign pattern {e_j} that gives x = Sum e_j/2^j. Don’t know if there is any rigorous way to make sense of this.
But the height of the spike should be countable/uncountable, or 0. Andy
I think my argument can be made rigorous rather straightforwardly, although perhaps it assumes that there is an answer. It is rather trivial to see that if you start with a [0,1] uniformly distributed random variable and express it as a binary fraction, then each bit must have equal probability of being 0 or 1 (just look at the part of the distribution with all the other bits fixed). Taking the bits as a sequence a[n] of 0s and 1s, then 2*a[n]-1 is your sequence, and it's clear that the new sum is twice the old minus 1, transforming uniform in [0,1] to uniform in [-1,1]. No? --ms On 2014-02-14 00:08, Dan Asimov wrote:
As Fred says, fascinating! Thanks, Victor.
I had no idea that slightly changing the question leads to such subtleties. Though it shouldn’t be surprising that the question has been asked before. (Long before Erdős discussed it? Or not?)
I got the same answer Mike Speciner did: uniform on [-1,1], though maybe a bit more rigorously, using a Fourier transform to get essentially the product for n >= 1 of cos(w/2^n). Which I couldn’t evaluate explicitly but found that Viéte (Vieta) evaluated in 1593 as sinc(w) := sin(w)/w. Then looking up the inverse Fourier transform to get U[-1,1].
It seems that in some sense the density ought to have a spike at any x = 1/2^n in (-1,1), since there are countably many sign patterns with that sum. For all other x in [-1,1], there is a unique sign pattern {e_j} that gives x = Sum e_j/2^j. Don’t know if there is any rigorous way to make sense of this.
—Dan
On Feb 13, 2014, at 2:03 PM, Victor Miller <victorsmiller@gmail.com> wrote:
Your problem is known as the Bernoulli Convolution. Look here for a nice survey.
On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,... be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1...oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
--Dan
math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
On 14/02/2014 14:31, Mike Speciner wrote:
I think my argument can be made rigorous rather straightforwardly, although perhaps it assumes that there is an answer. It is rather trivial to see that if you start with a [0,1] uniformly distributed random variable and express it as a binary fraction, then each bit must have equal probability of being 0 or 1 (just look at the part of the distribution with all the other bits fixed). Taking the bits as a sequence a[n] of 0s and 1s, then 2*a[n]-1 is your sequence, and it's clear that the new sum is twice the old minus 1, transforming uniform in [0,1] to uniform in [-1,1].
Easier and maybe more watertight is to go in the other direction: 0. X cannot lie outside [-1,+1]. 1. Pr(X < 0) = Pr(X0 = +1) = 1/2. 2. Now Pr(X<-1/2) = 1/4, etc. 3. Continuing, by induction we find that for dyadic rationals a,b between -1 and +1, Pr(a<=X<b) = (b-a)/2. 4. So for any a,b between -1 and +1, Pr(a<=X<b) = (b-a)/2 because we can squeeze it between two arbitrarily close probabilities made from dyadic rationals. 5. This is just the same thing as saying that X is uniformly distributed on [-1,+1]. -- g
OOps! I see I misread the problem. Since X = e_0 + X/2 X = 2e_0 and P(X=2)=1/2 P(X=-2)=1/2 Brent On 2/13/2014 1:42 PM, meekerdb wrote:
It's -inf with probability 1/2 and +inf with probability 1/2.
Brent
On 2/13/2014 11:18 AM, Dan Asimov wrote:
Let e_j, j = 1,2,3,… be independent random variables each taking the values +-1 with probability 1/2.
Let the random variable X be defined as
X := Sum_{n=1…oo} e_j/2^j.
PUZZLE: What is the distribution of X ???
—Dan _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun
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On 2/12/2014 12:25 PM, Warren D Smith wrote:
The Cambridge Encyclopedia of Earth Science claims what generates the Earth's magnetic field is not understood. Here I suggest a simple model.
FACTS: 1. The field is roughly a dipole pointed approximately North, and at previous times in Earth history has pointed approximately South instead. North and South (with respect to rotation axis) appear to be stable states, but pointing in other directions (or nonexistent field) appears to be an unstable state which quickly vanishes and is replaced by one of the two stable states. This historical record is revealed by magnetism trapped in volcanic rocks at time of formation, versus that time. You can see a graphic in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geomagnetic_reversal which shows 9 N-pointing and 9 S-pointing periods occurred during the last 5 Million years, each with apparently-random durations.
There may also have been additional switchovers with short durations. The short ones are hard to detect. The best known such short-duration event was the "Laschamp event" in about the year 39000 BC, a reversal lasting only about 440 years with the actual change of polarity lasting around 250 years. The reversed field was 75% weaker and the strength dropped to only 5% of the current strength during the transition. This resulted in greater radiation reaching the Earth, causing greater production of beryllium 10 and higher levels of carbon 14. Perhaps these short events are best regarded as failed attempts to reverse -- we drop to a low field state, and then that state is attracted to the two N- or S-pointing stable states. If attracted back to the original one then we get a "failed reversal" instead of a genuine reversal.
The switchover-times are each <=50,000 years. There was at least one 40 million year span containing no reversal, but overall average has been about 2.2 reversals per million years.
2. The Moon has only tiny magnetic field, mostly a few nanoTesla. (Versus: Earth's is 25-65 microTesla.) Comparably-tiny fields: Mars, Venus. Intermediate strength: Mercury. Jupiter's field is 10X Earth's. Saturn also has a strong field. Uranus and Neptune have large magnetic fields, but they are not well axis aligned.
MY MODEL: The field is generated by a "dynamo" from convection currents of hot electrically conductive fluid inside the planet. Moon and Mars have no field since they have no such internal convection currents, they are geo-tectonically dead in the sense they have no volcanos (although Mars at an earlier time did have volcanos) and no plate tectonics, indicating internal convection currents are much weaker and less-well defined (i.e. tend to cancel out over time averaging). Venus still has active volcanos, but its lack of magnetic field will be explained below. Mercury's, Saturn's, and Jupiter's fields are presumed to be generated by same mechanism as Earth's. The more gravity and more internal heat a (non-dead) planet has, the more powerful its convection and hence more powerful its fields -- also axis alignment more-perpendicular to planet-sun direction helps generate more field for reason explained below -- all explaining why Mercury<Earth<Saturn<Jupiter.
Now my claim is that the convection currents flow outward from core toward equator. The fluid then cools, and drops back to the core from the poles. This requires that (and is predicted by) the poles tend to exert more cooling effect than the equator.
If so, then a N- or S-pointing magnetic field, will induce (via Lorentz force) an equator-circling electrical current, This in turn will reinforce the field. Result is a stable "dynamo" powered ultimately by internal heat (radioactively generated and/or left over from planet formation). For Earth, situation is complicated by the presence of oceans over thin crust, and continents over thick crust. Presumably there is more cooling in the ocean regions and/or volcanic regions. Also there are "hot spots" such as Hawaii. Also the Earth's rotation axis precesses and is not exactly perpendicular to the Earth-sun line. All this complexity, plus fluid "turbulence," presumably has something to do with why we get occasional reversals. I would presume the field continually fluctuates and whenever (rarely) a fluctuation is comparable to the field itself, then we are ready for either a reversal or failed-reversal.
In the case of Venus, there are no plate tectonics (although there is volcanism) and there is a huge atmosphere which redistributes heat efficiently, meaning the equator may not have a much greater cooling effect than the poles.
For Uranus and Neptune the sun is so far away that its thermal effects are pretty negligible, explaining why their fields are not axis aligned (and Uranus has a huge axial tilt too, so even if the sun's heat non-negligible, that'd still mostly cancel out its effects).
SO???
That seemed pretty easy. Why wasn't this thought of ages ago?
Too shed light on that, let's do some crude numerical calculations. Assume convection speed of v = 1 cm/year -- same order as continent drift speeds.
I think flow of the molten iron core could be considerably faster.
Total voltage induced circling equator (25000 mile circumf.) then is of order v * (50 microTesla) * (25000 miles) = 6.4 * 10^(-7) volts. Assuming 40 ohm*meter electrical resistivity for lava (this was a Hawaii measurement) the earth going round the equator is about a 10^(-5) ohm resistor.
And I would expect the molten iron to have much higher conductivity than molten silicon rock. But the theory can't just be about fields and rotating conductors, otherwise you could produce a field just by rotation an iron ball. The theory must depend on the conductors being carried by the molten convection as well as rotation of the Earth. Brent Meeker
[However it actually is found that high pressures and high temperatures both act to decrease resistivity for molten rock apparently like Arhennius law exp(const/T), plus there are stairsteps caused by temperature surpassing ionization-energy thresholds.]
So this voltage would induce a current circling equator of order 0.06 Amps. That in turn would cause a magnetic dipole moment of about 8*10^12 * meter^2 * ampere which is 10^10 times smaller than the actual Earth dipole moment 8*10^22 * meter^2 * Ampere.
Oops. It seems still within the reasonable realm that the resistivity might be only 1 ohm*meter and the flow speed might be 10 cm/year. This would increase our predicted dipole moment by a factor of 40*10=400. The flow speeds necessarily will be larger still nearer the center of the Earth due to volumes being smaller there, and the magnetic fields there might be much larger due to larger currents at smaller distances. So assuming both 10X greater flow speed and magnetic field down there, we could get another factor of a few hundred. But this is still well short of the required 10^10 factor.
CONCLUSION: The model sounded great for a little while, but it is predicting too small fields compared to observation. What went wrong??
Warren, you've left out the Coriolis force. It surely plays an important role. Gene
--I find that hard to believe because the flow velocities are very small, and Coriolis force is proportional to velocity.
And I would expect the molten iron to have much higher conductivity than molten silicon rock. But the theory can't just be about fields and rotating conductors, otherwise you could produce a field just by rotation an iron ball.
--A rigidly rotating solid body by itself, can never be a dynamo, as is easy to see. (Also, it would have no way to generate power, vs: convection is continuously powered by radioactive heat.)
The theory must depend on the conductors being carried by the molten convection as well as rotation of the Earth. Brent Meeker
--it indeed does. As I explained in one of my latest posts, molten iron convects up toward poles and down from equator, which is a decidedly non-rigid-body kind of liquid flow, and which IS a dynamo. Furthermore, the rotation of the Earth plays an important role in stabilizing that particular flow configuration as opposed to its time-reverse (which would have been an anti-dynamo featuring negative feedback -- useless). So my current picture, which took a while for me to find, seems to explain a lot plus clearly will produce large enough field numbers: 1. explains why field is normally points parallel or antiparallel to rotation axis 2. explains why Venus no field (not rotating) 3. explains why Mercury<Earth<Saturn<Jupiter in terms of fields 4. explains why Moon has no field (slow rotation, only very small liquid core region) But I would now say I do not understand why Mars has only a tiny field given that Mars is believed to have a liquid metal core and rotates reasonably fast. However, I'm not sure they know a damn thing about Mars' core. Earthquakes and seismic clues tell us what is inside. Moon quakes are not powerful enough to see the Moon's core with the seismic sensors Apollo put on the Moon, and so its presence is less certain. For Mars presumably things are still less certain and I do not think they really know if it has a liquid core, nor do they have any accurate estimate of its size. All they have are models constrained by gravitational measurements, which is not good enough. Both Moon & Mars geo-tectonically dead and hence have only tiny quakes. So it might be that Mars contradicts my picture, but I do not think that will be clear until at least 2016 when they plan to land a seismometer there.
Also, I think it would be interesting if anybody could figure out how to build a tabletop experiment which is basically a scale model of the Earth's core. See, I do not believe computers can simulate fluid turbulence in a manner I would believe. But if an actual fluid could be made, then just observe what happens, that I might believe. Difficulties: how to make "gravity"? How to make "internal heat"? And how to choose the right ingredients so that the scaling relationships yield a valid "simulated Earth"? Probably cannot be done?
Another problem: What sets the magnetic field value? If there is a fixed velocity field, then induced voltage V is proportional to magnetic field, which via Ohm's law and the law of inductance, means we should approach a current I set by V=I*R where R=resistance, which in turn generates the magnetic field. These equations are linear, so if multiply input magnetic field by X... we multiply output magnetic field by X. There is nothing to set any particular level. And if the output exceeds the input, we would get growth, and what would stop that growth? So something else needs to be put into this picture, some nonlinear effect, which stops the growth and holds the magnetic field at some level. The answer to that is presumably that the input heat-power from radioactive decay, must exceed the Joule power loss I*I*R. But this Joule heat "loss" actually just generates heat which further powers the convection which powers the whole dynamo, so it isn't "loss." So then you realize that the Joule heat is differently distributed than the radioactive heat. So really, this whole thing is a heat-transfer mechanism which allows heat to move out of the Earth's core at a greater rate than convection and conduction alone, sans dynamo, could have done. Plus there is additional "loss" beyond Joule, for example the Earth's magnetic field diverts the solar wind, which effect (exercising your hand to perform "right hand rule" again...) is to diminish the Earth's field and transfer earth-core heat into the solar-wind plasma. This solar-wind loss mechanism must be nonlinear in the magnetic field because there is a volume, the "magnetosphere" which grows the stringer the field is, and outside that volume the Earth;s field is basically canceled out by solar wind effects. The loss is proportional to the field strength times the magnetosphere volume (or surface); and this is clearly growing like a power >1 of the magnetic field. So, CONCLUSION: there is at least one nonlinear loss mechanism preventing huge field growth and which causes the correct qualitative behavior -- self-amplification of small fields, but imposing a ceiling on field strength. So now let us do a numerical estimation to hopefully verify all this. We will compute (a) the earth's heat-generation rate, and compare it with (b) the power loss/transfer from the earth field into the solar wind plasma. (a): wikipedia says Earth internal heat generation rate is 44 to 47 terawatts, although perhaps only 10-20 comes from the core. So say 10^13 watts. (b): view the magnetosphere as bending the solar wind an angle of order 90 degrees. Solar wind properties at 1 AU: speed: 200 to 900 km/sec proton particle energies: 0.2 to 4.2 keV (consequently) proton particle densities: 0.2 to 50 per cm^3 (plus same for electrons) current density of protons (consequently): 6.4*10^(-9) to 3.3*10^(-5) amp/meter^2 The effect then is essentially that the earth is a battery generating order 200-4200 volts at a current of order C*J where J=0.1 nanoamps to 33 microamps/meter^2 is the proton wind proton current (also electron current is same) and C is the cross-sectional area of the Earth magnetosphere which is about pi*r^2 where r=15 to 30 earthradii. proportional to the solar wind. So the current is about 1.8*10^8 to 3.9*10^12 amps. So V*I=power loss to solar wind, is about 3.7*10^11 to 7.7*10^15 watts. This answer (b) is a factor-20000 wide interval (sorry about the crudity) but it does enclose the answer (a) right in the middle (on a log scale), so our picture is not refuted. If this is correct and is really the main thing placing a ceiling on the Earth's magnetic field, then this would predict that if the solar wind were magically turned off, the Earth's field would grow quite a lot larger. And as far as I know from rumors, solar wind variations do indeed cause substantial fluctuations in the Earth's field, suggesting this is indeed the main loss/ceiling-causing mechanism. So back of envelope estimates and simple thinking appear to be successfully getting us quite far.
participants (10)
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Andy Latto -
Charles Greathouse -
Dan Asimov -
Eugene Salamin -
Fred Lunnon -
Gareth McCaughan -
meekerdb -
Mike Speciner -
Victor Miller -
Warren D Smith