6 Aug
2010
6 Aug
'10
11:54 a.m.
Okay, so a natural question is whether the CF quotients have the "expected" distribution. In the invariant measure* on (0,1], the number N has probability P(N) = log_2( 1 + 1/(N(N+2)) ) So how does this compare with the calculation for pi ? --Dan * I.e., with density d(x) = (1/log(2)) 1/(x+1), invariant under the map T(x) = 1/x - [1/x]. _____________________________________________________________________ "It don't mean a thing if it ain't got that certain je ne sais quoi." --Peter Schickele