17 Feb
2011
17 Feb
'11
1:10 p.m.
Can anyone tell me how to prove that \int_0^\infty log(x)/(1+cosh(x)) dx = log(\pi/2)-\gamma? Any info related to this integral is also appreciated. I could find nothing except that Wolfram|Alpha knew it. Hope that this isn't too trivial for math-fun. Thanks, Warut