[math-fun] Texas Hold 'em

Two cards are dealt to each of n>1 players in a game of Texas Hold 'em. For which values of n is it possible that all the two-card hands have an equal a priori probability of winning, assuming that everyone will stay in the hand until all the 5 common cards are dealt? -- Thane Plambeck tplambeck@gmail.com http://www.plambeck.org/ehome.htm