13 Sep
2005
13 Sep
'05
1:19 p.m.
It could be tricky to prove termination. You're replacing one fraction with two. Rich -----Original Message----- From: math-fun-bounces+rschroe=sandia.gov@mailman.xmission.com on behalf of Mike Stay Sent: Tue 9/13/2005 12:12 PM To: math-fun Subject: Re: [math-fun] Egyptian fractions question
Given a finite set R of unit fractions, is it possible to represent all rationals as Egyptian fractions without using elements of R?
(Slaps forehead) Just use the splitting relation 1/x = 1/(x+1) + 1/(x^2 + x). -- Mike Stay metaweta@gmail.com http://math.ucr.edu/~mike _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun