[math-fun] n^e and pi(n)

Is this true? for any e>0, n^e>pi(n) for all n>N_e where pi(n) is the number of primes <=n Jon Perry perry@globalnet.co.uk http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~perry/maths/ http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~perry/DIVMenu/ BrainBench MVP for HTML and JavaScript http://www.brainbench.com