Additionally, do we distinguish between the boolean short-circuit analysis of drinking and driving, and driving and drinking? Jon Perry perry@globalnet.co.uk http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~perry/maths/ http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~perry/DIVMenu/ BrainBench MVP for HTML and JavaScript http://www.brainbench.com -----Original Message----- From: math-fun-bounces@mailman.xmission.com [mailto:math-fun-bounces@mailman.xmission.com]On Behalf Of Don Reble Sent: 16 September 2003 00:25 To: math-fun Subject: Re: [math-fun] Drinking and driving
I've just heard that 32% of accidents are caused by people who've been drinking. This means that 68% are caused by people who haven't been. So it's clear that the chance of your causing an accident if you've been drinking is only 8/17 of the chance if you haven't.
This ignores the likelihood that few drivers are drinking. So it's sloppy thinking, but it might be true anyway, because the civilized drinkers don't drive, and thereby don't cause accidents. Let's get the odds down to 0/17. (Dr. Guy: thank you for posting instead of driving in that state. :-) -- Don Reble djr@nk.ca _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun