4 Jun
2003
4 Jun
'03
9:40 p.m.
Propp's conjecture would imply a prime between n^2 and (n+1)^2, which conjecture I believe is stil outstanding. ----- Original Message ----- From: Richard Guy To: math-fun Sent: Wednesday, June 04, 2003 5:47 PM Subject: Re: [math-fun] a prime in each row? Yes, but you're not going to be able to prove it. R. On Wed, 4 Jun 2003, James Propp wrote:
When you write the numbers from 1 to n^2 in n rows of length n (with n > 1 arbitrary), does each row contain a prime?
Jim Propp