12 Sep
2005
12 Sep
'05
12:41 p.m.
Yes, since sum 1/n diverges, even though you omit a finitenumber of terms. R. On Mon, 12 Sep 2005, Mike Stay wrote:
Given a finite set R of unit fractions, is it possible to represent all rationals as Egyptian fractions without using elements of R?
-- Mike Stay metaweta@gmail.com http://math.ucr.edu/~mike
_______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun