Re: [math-fun] Texas Hold 'em

Two cards are dealt to each of n>1 players in a game of Texas Hold 'em.

For which values of n is it possible that all the two-card hands have an equal a priori probability of winning, assuming that everyone will stay in the hand until all the 5 common cards are dealt?

i'd be amazed if the answer were anything other than n=2, 3, and 4. deal every player the same denominations in non-matching suits. erich friedman