If the digits have no pattern then God can't know all the digits because there's no such thing as "all the digits,"
Why would this be true? Are you assuming that God has a bounded memory? -----Original Message----- From: math-fun-bounces@mailman.xmission.com [mailto:math-fun-bounces@mailman.xmission.com] On Behalf Of rcs@xmission.com Sent: Wednesday, December 02, 2009 4:24 PM To: math-fun@mailman.xmission.com Cc: rcs@xmission.com Subject: Re: [math-fun] Solving polynomial equations with roots, etc. Date: Wed, 02 Dec 2009 10:55:57 -0800 Subject: Re: [math-fun] Solving polynomial equations with roots, etc. From: "Stephen B. Gray" <stevebg@roadrunner.com> Here's the real issue. I'm trying to make an argument against the supposedly omniscient God by raising the philosophical question of whether "God," if any, instantaneously and simultaneously knows "all" the digits of Pi or sqrt(2), for example. If the digits have no pattern then God can't know all the digits because there's no such thing as "all the digits," presumably disproving omniscience. But if there were some pattern to them, a theist could argue that knowing the pattern is equivalent to knowing all the digits. If you say that this whole issue is meaningless mystical mush, I agree, but I'm trying to show by some relatively elementary mathematical- philosophical argument that a theologian could not easily dispute, that omniscience is incoherent. (I'm writing a book about Christianity.) Omniscience is usually defined by theologians as knowing all the facts that it is possible to know. It's not clear whether if God is infinite (whatever that means) he can know an infinite string of digits or even the infinite digits in "each" of the uncountable number of algebraics or transcendentals. There are other issues related to this, for example in what sense do numbers "exist." One might argue that they're purely human constructs, but if humans know about numbers, "God" must, also. Steve Gray Mike Stay wrote:
On Tue, Dec 1, 2009 at 8:59 PM, <rcs@xmission.com> wrote:
Date: Tue, 01 Dec 2009 20:49:57 -0800 Subject: Re: [math-fun] Solving polynomial equations with roots, etc. From: "Stephen B. Gray" <stevebg@roadrunner.com>
Henry Baker wrote:
Isn't this what the Borwein expansions are all about?
At 06:07 PM 12/1/2009, you wrote:
from SBG ... Date: Mon, 30 Nov 2009 19:44:17 -0800 Subject: Re: [math-fun] Solving polynomial equations with roots, etc. From: "Stephen B. Gray" <stevebg@roadrunner.com>
On a different subject, for anyone to comment on.
Everyone knows that sqrt(2), pi, and all irrational numbers have no decimal strings that repeat an infinite number of times. That's not necessarily the same as the decimal expansion being totally without any pattern. That is, is there any way to predict the next digits of say sqrt(2) or pi without doing one of the usual computations? In other words, is it possible to "know" the entire decimal expansion of any "ordinary" irrational? Is anything known about patterns in "regular" irrational expansions?
I'm excluding numbers invented for the sole purpose of being irrational or transcendental and with an obvious pattern like .101001000100001.... or .123456789101112..... ), etc.) I know about the question of "normal" expansions but that has little to do with my question.
Any info will be appreciated.
Steve Gray
If by the Borwein expansions you mean the formula for computing hex digits without knowing the preceding ones, yes, I know about that. I also know about the contined fractions having simple patterns. Assuming that the "value" of the irrational is given only by the decimal expansion, is it possible to "know" the exact value by knowing the pattern? This is part of a theological issue which actually means very little to most people. (And it may be meaningless.). (I'm not a believer.)
What do you mean by "pattern"? Do you mean an algorithm for producing each digit given only its index? If so, then any computable number works, whereas uncomputable numbers (e.g. the complexity of the rational approximations is unbounded) don't.
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