--- Gareth McCaughan <gareth.mccaughan@pobox.com> wrote:
As all munsters know, area^2 = s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c) = xyz(x+y+z). Is there a really good proof of this? The best one I've been able to cook up[1] says: let t,u,v = tan A/2 etc.; then xt=r (the inradius) etc., so t:u:v = 1/x:1/y:1/z, and (tangent-sum formula, angle-sum of triangle) uv+vt+tu=1, so t = 1/x / sqrt(1/yz+1/zx+1/xy), so r^2 = 1/(1/yz+1/zx+1/xy) = xyz/(x+y+z) and as rs=area we're done. But this feels a bit too complicated. Is there perhaps a neat proof in 4 or 6 dimensions that looks at the cartesian product of the triangle (or some tetrahedron with the triangle as base) with itself?
[1] Presumably it's been known for centuries.
-- g
Adjoin two congruent triangles along their c edge to obtain a parallogram of area 2A = a b sinC. (2A)^2 = a^2 b^2 (1 - (cosC)^2). Using the law of cosines, A^2 can be expressed as a polynomial P(a,b,c) of degree 4. P vanishes when c=a+b, etc. So P(a,b,c) = (-a+b+c)(a-b+c)(a+b-c)Q(a,b,c). Q is of degree 1, and since P is symmetric, so is Q. Then Q is a multiple of a+b+c. The fixed constant can be found by consdering e.g. an equilateral triangle. Gene __________________________________________________ Do You Yahoo!? Tired of spam? Yahoo! Mail has the best spam protection around http://mail.yahoo.com