30 Mar
2008
30 Mar
'08
10:36 p.m.
On 3/30/08, Gareth McCaughan <gareth.mccaughan@pobox.com> wrote:
On Sunday 30 March 2008, Fred Lunnon wrote:
No. A classic result of number theory says that the i-th prime equals i/log(i) (very roughly)
Or, less roughly, i log i :-).
Ouch --- don't just read what I write, read what I mean! Well, the clocks have just gone forward an hour here ... WFL