20 Jan
2004
20 Jan
'04
5:28 a.m.
Excuse my ignorance please, but wrt to A. Wiles proof of FLT, is the proof valid for rationals and/or with rational powers? Jon Perry perry@globalnet.co.uk http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~perry/maths/ http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~perry/DIVMenu/ BrainBench MVP for HTML and JavaScript http://www.brainbench.com