Huh? It _is_ trivial, given exp(i pi) = -1 !! WFL On 3/15/10, Bill Gosper <billgosper@gmail.com> wrote:
Shew that odd 2 i k pi 2 i k pi ==== -------- -------- \ odd odd > e oddfun(e ) / ==== k = 1
odd i (2 k - 1) pi i (2 k - 1) pi ==== -------------- -------------- \ odd odd = > e oddfun(e ) / ==== k = 1 Easy but not trivial. --rwg _______________________________________________ math-fun mailing list math-fun@mailman.xmission.com http://mailman.xmission.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/math-fun