7 Aug
2019
7 Aug
'19
10:28 p.m.
On Wed, Aug 7, 2019 at 7:28 PM <bradklee@gmail.com> wrote:
The issue of ignoring measure zero sets is a tricky one though, and too little thought on this question could wreck the whole argument.
If what we're interested in is the integral of a function with respect to a particular measure, there is nothing tricky about ignoring measure zero sets. If a set has measure 0, the integral is unchanged by integrating a function that has different, arbitrary, values on that set. Andy andy.latto@pobox.com