6 Oct
2008
6 Oct
'08
7:05 p.m.
Dan Asimov wrote:
... But the Glass-Steagall Act was repealed in 1999.
I'm puzzled that I haven't encountered in the media anyone's mentioning that repeal as a possible factor in what's happening now.
Anyone have (non-partisan) comments on this?
To (non-partisanly) respond to the assumption that it hasn't been mentioned in the media: I've heard it mentioned as one possible (partial) cause several times, most recently this very morning (On Forum, on KQED, [ http://www.kqed.org/radio/programs/forum/ (9am, on Monday October 6th, "Beyond the Bailout"), if you want to hear the podcast ]).