We all know that subjective price is a nonlinear function of monetary price (that's just a fancy way of saying that $19.99 "feels" like significantly less money than $20). But is it possible that subjective price is (for some people, under some circumstances) a non-monotone function of monetary price? That is, might $7.01 "feel" like more money than $8 (for instance)? I'd be curious to know if this has ever been studied. For that matter, is there experimental evidence backing up the idea that you can make people significantly more willing to buy a $20 consumer product by knocking a penny off the price? I should mention that I'm aware that there have been instances in which raising the price of an item increased the demand for the item (because the higher price marked it as a luxury item, and then people wanted to buy the prestige that came along with the higher pricetag). But that's not quite what I'm asking about. Jim Propp