Re: [math-fun] My Ramanujan moment

I can prove A002072(1) = 1 and A002072(2) = 8 (but I have to invoke the Catalan Conjecture to get the latter). Subsequent elements seem a lot more difficult to prove, and I suspect that they are conjectural. Is this the case? ----- Original Message ----- From: "ed pegg" <ed@mathpuzzle.com> To: "math-fun" <math-fun@mailman.xmission.com> Sent: Thursday, March 10, 2005 12:18 AM Subject: [math-fun] My Ramanujan moment

I didn't see the connection at all, so I asked Richard to explain. (http://www.research.att.com/projects/OEIS?Anum=A002072 , by the way, is largest consecutive n-smooth numbers))