30 Apr
2015
30 Apr
'15
7:17 a.m.
For what values of n is it possible to get from every n-digit prime number to every other by way of a succession of single-digit alterations? It's trivially true for n=1, and it's also true for n=2 since every 2-digit prime remains prime if you change its first digit to a 1. Jim Propp