26 Feb
2012
26 Feb
'12
7:27 a.m.
So in a Borwein integral with factors sin(x/k_i)/(x/k_i), is the value v of the form f(sum(1/k_i))? Just asking this because the article says v = pi/2 if sum(1/k_i) < 1 (for i >= 2, where k_1 = 1), which would be true if v = f(sum(1/k_i)) such that f(x) = 1 with 0 < x < 2. On 2/25/2012 7:05 PM, Warren Smith wrote:
I just saw this wikipedia article: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Borwein_integral
Truly, the Gods are against us.