8 Aug
2019
8 Aug
'19
2:18 a.m.
For reals R, card(R^n)=card(R) yet R is measure zero in R^n. This is something of a paradox, yet: R^n=(R^(n-1)/p)*R + p*R, with p a lone point of R^(n-1), and p measure zero in R^(n-1). This sounds okay(?). What’s more troubling is reading on stack exchange and physics forum that Lebesgue integration allows, sometimes requires (?), 0*infinity=0? “I’m on the outside, looking inside / what do I see? / Much confusion, disillusion / all around me.” Arggggg.......