[math-fun] Stupid QM question (EPR, B-E statistics)

Bose-Einstein statistics apply to bosons, correct? If I have a number N of these bosons, *all in the "same" state*, then these are all maximally entangled, correct? If I "measure" one of these bosons (is this even possible -- to measure just one?), this measurement necessarily puts *all* of my bosons into the same state ? I.e., the usual EPR experiment works with 2 entangled qubits; measure one and the same measurement on the other will produce the same result. Now, I'd like to have N entangled qubits, so that measuring any one will guarantee the same measurement on *all* of the other qubits. Does this work in theory? Does this work in practise?