The two papers presented in parallel are not translations of each other except in a very tenuous Hofstadterian sort of way. The paper written in French proves the result we have been wrestling with here; the one written in English proves the same result for French. I suspect it is simply false for Spanish, which has kept a much closer correspondance between spelling and pronunciation than either English or French have. On Fri, Sep 25, 2015 at 8:57 PM, Dan Asimov <asimov@msri.org> wrote:
A quick glance at that paper suggests that it's full of humor.
(It, too, showed v = 1 as the last letter to fall.)
—Dan
On Sep 25, 2015, at 5:53 PM, James Propp <jamespropp@gmail.com> wrote:
See http://projecteuclid.org/download/pdf_1/euclid.em/1062620828 which as I recall proves that the homophony group of English is trivial.
Jim Propp
On Friday, September 25, 2015, Michael Kleber <michael.kleber@gmail.com> wrote:
Brought to mind by Wouter's question is: Consider the group generated by the letters A through Z, with the relations that any two English homonyms are equal. Prove that the groups is trivial.
Wouter's question was to show h is trivial, so 25 letters to go :-).
--Michael
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