5 Jun
2011
5 Jun
'11
9:36 a.m.
On Sun, Jun 5, 2011 at 7:57 AM, Adam P. Goucher <apgoucher@gmx.com> wrote:
To clarify, I was referring to a uniform distribution over the positive integers. Obviously, distributions with nonzero probability density functions, such as exponential distributions, are not subject to this paradox.
What have I done wrong?
There is no uniform distribution over the positive integers. -- Mike Stay - metaweta@gmail.com http://www.cs.auckland.ac.nz/~mike http://reperiendi.wordpress.com